Aeronet

Bonjour à tous,

Je viens de mettre la main sur une database de questions, dont voici un premier extrait : AIR LAW.

Cela pourra peut être servir à certains d'entre vous et en outre, je voudrais savoir si elle reflètent la réalité aux examens.

Ce serait intéressant de savoir, pour ceux qui ont déja passé le AIR LAW, si ces questions valent la peine d'être retenues pour mes études.


Merci


Beech Boy





AIR LAW AND ATC PROCEDURES

10.1 International Agreements and Organisations
10.1.1 The Convention of Chicago (20)

Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ?
the Air Navigation Commission

An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
2nd freedom

One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
develop principles and technique for international aviation

The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national différence

The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :
Chicago convention 1944

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :
Chicago

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes;
standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.

For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation.

Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?
The Council.

Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)?
Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation.

What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?
The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.


What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?
The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.

Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international agreement/convention?
Agreement of Paris.

According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
The Convention of Tokyo.

Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for
Aerodromes.

The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refuelling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air:
2nd freedom.

Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?
The Rome convention.

For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable?
For domestic flights.

Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:
Security

The JAA is controlled by:
the JAA Committee


10.1 International Agreements and Organisations
10.1.2 Other International agreements (22)

"Cabotage" refers to:
domestic air services ;

The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transported

Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention

Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect :
6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments


Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed
International Civil Aviation Organisation

The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is :
the convention of Tokyo

The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is
the convention of Tokyo

The second freedom of the air is the :
right to land for a technical stop

The first freedom of the air is:
The right to overfly without landing.

The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :
Warsaw Convention.

How will a member state withdraw from the Tokyo Convention?
By informing ICAO

The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is called:
the first freedom of the air

The privilege to land in another ICAO participating state for technical reasons is called:
the second freedom

5th freedom of the air is:
the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D)

Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the responsibilities with illegal acts committed on board aircraft?
the Tokyo Convention

The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called:
5th freedom rights

What is Cabotage?
domestic air services by an operator within another state

What privilege does the first freedom of the air grant?
to fly across the territory of a state without landing in that state


What is Cabotage?
limitation of domestic scheduled air services to a national carrier

What does the second freedom of the air permit?
to land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state

The Convention of Tokyo applies to damage:
the above convention does not deal with this item

Under the terms of the Tokyo Convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the event of an act of unlawful seizure occuring within the territory of that state?
the state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft





10.1 International Agreements and Organisations
10.1.4 Operators' and pilots' liabilities towards persons and goods (10)

The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law
may deliver such person to the competent authorities

The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :
Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :
the Rome Convention

Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by :
the Rome Convention

The convention of Rome applies to damage :
caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state

The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from:
the date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased

Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
the Montreal Convention

The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:
2 years

What flight are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act?
all flights

What can the commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law?
land in any country and off-load the offender
use force to place the person in custody
deliver the person to the competent authority


10.2 Annex 8-Airworthiness of Aircraft (17)

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes :
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass


When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

The loading limitations shall include :
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings

Load factors has the following meaning :
the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground réactions

According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
Laws of the State of registry

The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determined by:
The State of registry

An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy condition if:
It receives permission of the State of Registry.

Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness?
The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements.



For the standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) to be applicable, how many engines must the aircraft have?
2 or more

The standards to Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to:
aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700 kgs

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flight crew compartment door?
it must be capable of being locked

Annex 8 covers the airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness?
the authority of the state of registration

Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness?
the name and address of the owner

Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane?
the state of registry

The continued validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft is based on:
the law of the State of Registry.

Annex 8 contains limitations on
limiting masses, centres of gravity positions, mass distribution and floor loading.


10.3 Annex 7-Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks (15)

The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by :
the International Civil Aviation Organisation

The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union

The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by :
the state of registry or common mark registering authority

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
TTT

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
PAN

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
XXX

The height of the marks on lighter than air aircraft other than unmanned free balloons shall be
at least 50 centimetres

The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be
at least 50 centimetres

The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be
at least 30 centimetres

When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:
It shall be preceded by a hyphen

Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted?
SY-PAN

When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:
it shall be preceded by a hyphen

ICAO Annex 7 contains...
standards but no recommended practices

Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration?
the category of aircraft

Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains:
standards only



10.4 Annex 1 Personnel Licensing (66)

The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.

You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :
1 year

The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is :
17 years

To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
21 and 59 years

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
Annex 1

The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is :
21

If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed :
After 21 days of consecutive "illness"

The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than :
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :
18 years of age

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
a current class I medical assessment

The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be :
to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation





An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance refered are :
20 hours and 540 km (300NM)

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively :
250 hours and 100 hours

The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :
200 hours and 100 hours

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of :
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
50 hours and 10 hours

In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed :
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date :
the medical assessment is issued

When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization
shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences (single pilot operations) aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from :
12 months to 6 months

Type ratings shall be established
for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit :
in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aéroplanes

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time

The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :
Annex 1

The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.
Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.

According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
More than 12 hours

According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
60 months until age of 40, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months thereafter

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
150 hours of flight time

According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
one year

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours :
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including :
All self.-sustaining gliders.

According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has :
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date :
Of issue

According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for :
Two years

According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to: :
Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aéroplanes

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A)shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23.

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for.
A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR

According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating :
On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A)rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights.

According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI autorisation

According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):
Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction

According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for :
Not more than three years

According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:
1 and 2

Medical requirements are contained in the following JAR-FCL Part:
Part 3

"Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination as the examiner may require" is the definition for a:
Proficiency check

May further ratings under JAR-FCL requirements be obtained by other States than the State of licence issue and if yes, by whom are such ratings entered into the licence?
Yes, ratings may be obtained by any JAA Member State, they will be entered into the licence by State of licence issue.

The holder of a licence with a night flying qualification that does not include a valid IR (A) and not operating under EU OPS 1 shall not act as a PIC of aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless
during the previous 90 days, at least one landing has been carried out at night.

Which medical certificate is required for a CPL or ATPL and by whom shall the medical checks be carried out.
Class 1 medical certificate; the first check has to be carried out by an AMC, the consecutive checks may be carried out by an AME.

The validity period of a PPL for a Pilot between 50 and 65 years is:
1 year

If due to an illness, a pilot is unable to act as a member of a flight crew for a period of 21 days or more, the holder of the licence shall
inform the Authority in writing when the period of 21 days has elapsed. Flight duties may only be resumed when the requirements imposed by the Authority have been met.

Type ratings are established for
each type of multi-pilot aeroplane (MPA).

The validity period of a type rating is
one year

(IR) The validity period of an IR (A) is
one year

(CPL) Which of the statements concerning the privileges of a holder of a CPL (A) is correct:
act as PIC in commercial air transportation of any single-pilot aeroplane.

The minimum age for a ATPL (A) shall be at least:
21 years.

The minimum age for a PPL (A) shall be at least:
17 years.

(CPL) The minimum age for a CPL (A) shall be at least:
18 years.

(CPL) An applicant for a CPL (A) shall have completed at least the following flight time:
150 hours if following an integrated course.

For which aircraft is MCC required?
For multi-crew aeroplanes.


10.5 Rules of the Air
10.5.1 Annex 2 (70)

Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit,a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than :
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
The commander

Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
Emergency aircraft

An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.

A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
5%

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode "A"
7 700

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ?
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
Descend

If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?
CAN NOT

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
The airport is unsafe, do not land

On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
aircraft taking off or about to take off

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintened by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft

Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit


A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist

An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing

A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.

Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.

An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than :
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter


Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance : not required ;

VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;

During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will :
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;

When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :
the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.

Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :
at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
on the ground when the engines are running

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;


Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions
You should :
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
not land because the airport is not available for landing.

Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft :
must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
must vacate the landing area in use.

While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.




Given:
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level
within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.

On an IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive a traffic information from ATC, that a VFR flight is going to cross your flight path from right to left. Who has the right-of-way?
The VFR flight has the right-of-way.

To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:
An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off.

When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest:
60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is:
in excess of three minutes.

If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall:
proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the expected approach time or, if no expected approach time has been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival resulting from the current flight plan.

If, during an interception, instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the pilot of the intercepted aircraft shall
request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the visual instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.

The minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds on a VFR flight in airspace class C at 9000 ft. AMSL/2500 ft. AGL is:
5 km, distance from clouds 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically.

For flights into control zones, the following meteorological conditions do not require a special VFR clearance:
Ground visibility 5 km, ceiling 1500 ft.

xcept when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than
300 m. above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

IR) Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, which statement concerning minimum flight altitudes for IFR flights is correct:
Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 m (2000 ft.) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
A parachute flare showing a red light.


Series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on ground mean:
Taxi clear of landing area in use.

A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means:
Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005°, the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight level is correct?
FL 55

In areas where a vertical separation of 2000 ft. has to be applied above FL 290, which group of the following flight levels contains odd flight levels only?
FL 410, FL 330

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to:
Mode A, Code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.

At an aerodrome, a red pyrotechnic means:
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

"Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:
Engage brakes.

In areas where a separation minimum of 1000 ft. is applied up to FL 410, authorisation for VFR flight shall not be granted above which flight level?
FL 290.

A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:
CTR.

IR) On an IFR flight, you experience a total communication failure in conditions of no clouds and in unlimited visibility. What should you do?
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATS immediately.

(IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following:
IAF.

Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:
aircraft landing and taking off.

If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
No.

Which of the following defines flight visibility?
The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?
A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC.

On a VFR flight in airspace class B, what is the minimum distance from clouds?
300 m vertically, 1500 m horizontally.

What defines a danger area?
Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist.

Above FL 290 the standard vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
4000 ft

Above FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be:
2000 ft

In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 metres (1000 ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at:
FL 400


10.6 DOC 8168
10.6.2 Definitions and abbreviations (4)

What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface.

What does the abbreviation DER mean?
Departure end of runway.

The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
25 NM


10.6.3 Departure procedures (10)

As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that an aeroplane has a climb gradient of:
3.3% with all engines operating.

A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procédure

If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport.

In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
0 ft.

In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within:
15°.

Turning departures provide track guidance within :
10 Km

We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within :
15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

(IR) Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1?
The operator of the aircraft.

(IR) Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure?

A) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20° from the runway alignment.
B) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15° from the runway alignment.
C) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10° from the runway alignment.
D) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5° from the runway alignment.
A and B


10.6.4 Approach procedures (64)

During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:
135 kt

The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).

Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
Base turn

If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to :
pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.

In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
Mean sea level.

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
Procedure turn.





You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until :
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is :
1, 2, 3.

In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:
Shuttle.

Where an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
150m (492 ft).

In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which aligment and descent for landing are made is called:
Final approach segment.

In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
FAP.

In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
1 minute 30 seconds.

How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure?
Up to 5.

Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
At the IAF.

Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
At least 300m (984 ft).

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:
1 minute.

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
1 minute 15 seconds.

In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:
Half a scale deflection.

In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
6m.

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Initial, intermediate and final.

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
2.5%.

Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the point where the climb is established.

The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Visual manoeuvring (circling).

It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvering (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

A circling approach is:
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
Landing runway.

Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :
half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
the state

On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :
30 degrees or less

Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :
6,5%.

The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.


In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least :
984 ft

If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?
Initiate a missed approach

What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?
Initiate a missed approach

During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
300 m (984 ft)

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
30 m (98 ft)

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :
50 m (164 ft)

A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...
using bearing, elevation and distance information.

Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
2.5%

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
25 NM

The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :
± 5 NM

In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
the OCH

For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
200 ft

(IR) Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obstacle clearance:
300 m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome.

(IR) For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide path angle?
3°

(IR) Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach segment?
150 m


(IR) During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until:
A) Visual reference has been established and can be maintained.
B) The pilot has the landing threshold in sight.
C) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing.
D) A landing clearance has been received by ATC.
A, B and C

(IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall:
Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed approach procedures.

(IR) Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called:
MDA

(IR) Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end?
When established in the climb.

(IR) Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what is the minimum obstacle clearance fixed margin that is applied for all aircraft?
75 m (246 ft)

(IR) For non precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be?
19 km (10 nm)

(IR) Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3° be used?
Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable.

(IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?
At the missed approach point.

(IR) If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument approach procedure, can the approach be continued?
Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with.

(IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted.

(IR) A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what circumstances is this permitted?
The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas.

(IR) Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start?
FAP

What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
2.5 %

During a precision approach, what is the maximum scale deflection tolerated according to EU OPS/JAR OPS for the glide slope?
½


10.6.5 Holding procedures (16)

What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.

In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.

Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ?
230 kt IAS.

Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
To the right.

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
1 minute

You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procédure
Either "off set" or "parallel".

What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
1 minute 30 seconds.

In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Heading.

Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
5°.

How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
5 NM.

In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
to the right

Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

(IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors.

(IR) In a holding pattern, turns are to be made:
At a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.

(IR) Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern?
One and one half minute for altitudes above 14'000 ft.

(IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance.



10.6.6 Altimeter setting procedures (12)

The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
Transition altitude.

The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
3000 ft.

The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
as altitude.

The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported :
as flight level.

At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing the transition level

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude

During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as
altitude above mean sea level during descent

On a VFR-Flight which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358°, variation 3°E, deviation 2°W?
FL 65

The transition level:
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established

The transition level:
Is calculated by ATS

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

During flight below the transition altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to
QNH and its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude.



10.7 Air Traffic Services
10.7.1 Annex 11
10.7.1.1 General (45)

Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.


Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.

A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
200 metres.

The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.

The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service
An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.

Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air trafic

To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /
two way radiocommunication is not required.

Which statement is correct?
The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;

What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
Not applicable

The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
250 KT IAS

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :
250 KT IAS

The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :
Not applicable

Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in :
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information région

The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds


A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
Airspace C

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
Airspace B

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as :
Airspace D

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
Airspace E

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
Airspace F

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
Airspace G

Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
30 seconds of UTC at all times

Except in some special cases the establishement of change-over points should be limited to route segments of
60 NM or more

Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

An air traffic control unit :
may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.

The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done :
by agreement with the receiving unit.

At least which services have to be provided by ATS within a flight information region?
Flight information service and alerting service.

The abbreviation RNP means:
Required navigation performance.

For VFR flights, continuous two way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes.
B, C, D.

Who is responsible to determine minimum flight altitudes for ATS routes?
Each State for ATS routes over their territory.

Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference?
ALERFA

The additional letter Z in the designator of an ATS route (e.g. A126Z) has the following meaning:
RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM.

On IFR flights, who is responsible for the prevention of collision with terrain?

A) The Pilot.
B) ATC, when IFR flights are vectored by radar.
C) The Pilot and ATC in close co-operation.
D) ATC, if the respective unit is equipped with SSR.
Combination of A and B.

The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS:

A) The ACAS capability of an aircraft will normally not be known to ATC controllers.
B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS.
C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their own separation in cruise.
D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft.
A and D

"Traffic to which the provision of ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated therefrom by the minima set forth" is called:
Essential traffic.

Separation by ATC shall be provided:
Between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C.

What is the speed limitation for IFR flights in airspace class C?
Not applicable.



What type of airspace is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes?
Terminal Control Area (TMA).

What is defined as: "A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with navigation aids"?
An airway.

The take-off mass of MEDIUM aircraft is as follows:
Less than 136'000 kg but more than 7000 kg.


10.7 Air Traffic Services
10.7.1 Annex 11
10.7.1.2 Air Traffic Control (19)

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
10 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
5 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding a